Wills · Chapter 1

Introduction to Wills and Estate Administration

Introduction

Every adult in England and Wales leaves behind an estate — the aggregate of everything they owned at death, minus everything they owed — which must be collected in, the debts and tax paid, and the balance distributed to those legally entitled. Wills and the Administration of Estates is the body of English law and practice that governs how all of that is done. This opening chapter maps the subject onto the three practical phases of a solicitor's work — planning the will, obtaining the grant of representation, and administering the estate — and introduces the principal sources of law, the core technical vocabulary, the solicitor's role across the three phases, and the FLK2 assessment format.

Assessment focus

For the SQE1 FLK2 assessment you must master this subject at the level of a newly qualified solicitor in practice: someone who can identify the legal issues correctly, apply the right rule, reach the right answer, and spot when a matter needs to be escalated. Of the 180 single best answer questions in FLK2, between roughly 18 and 24 are expected to fall within the Wills and Estates syllabus on any sitting; approximately one-third of those relate to inheritance tax, the single largest block. This introductory chapter is foundational: it establishes the three-phase framework, the four principal statutes (Wills Act 1837, Administration of Estates Act 1925, Inheritance Tax Act 1984 and the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975), and the vocabulary — Personal Representative, Grant of Representation, executor, administrator, legacy, devise, ademption, lapse — used throughout the rest of the book.

Study tips

1) When you read an FLK2 scenario, the first question to ask is: which phase is this in? Identifying the phase narrows the rule-set and avoids red herrings. 2) Learn the four principal statutes and what each governs — they supply roughly 80% of the law. 3) Remember the solicitor's client is the PRs, not the beneficiaries — the single most common conflict trap in FLK2. 4) Note the difference between an executor (authority from the will; title vests at death) and an administrator (authority from the grant alone; cannot act before the grant — *Ingall v Moran* [1944] KB 160). 5) Be alert to time limits: a claim under the I(PFD)A 1975 must be brought within six months of the grant, not the death. 6) Keep the 2025/26 IHT figures at your fingertips and be aware of the 6 April 2026 BPR/APR allowance (£2.5 million combined) and the 6 April 2027 pensions reform.

1. Introduction

Every adult in England and Wales will leave behind an estate — the aggregate of everything they owned at the moment of death, minus everything they owed — and that estate has to be collected in, the debts and tax paid, and what is left distributed to whoever is legally entitled to it. Wills and the Administration of Estates is the body of English law and practice that governs how all of that is done.

It is one of the oldest parts of the English legal system. The Wills Act 1837, still in force, sets out the formal requirements for a valid will that remain the law today. The Administration of Estates Act 1925 governs the distribution of the estate of a person who dies without a will and the powers of those who administer an estate. The Inheritance Tax Act 1984 governs the tax charged on death and on many lifetime gifts. Alongside these sit a number of more specialised enactments — the Trustee Act 1925, the Trustee Act 2000, the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975, the Inheritance and Trustees' Powers Act 2014, and the Non-Contentious Probate Rules 1987 — which supply the rest of the working machinery.

For the purposes of SQE1 FLK2 you need to master this machinery at the level of a newly qualified solicitor in practice: someone who, on day one in the office, can sit across a desk from a recently bereaved family, identify the legal issues correctly, apply the right rule, reach the right answer, and spot when a matter needs to be escalated. That is the standard against which the FLK2 single best answer questions are set, and it is the standard to which this book is written.

Key point
What this chapter does. Section 1.2 maps the subject onto the three practical phases of a solicitor's work — planning the will, obtaining the grant of representation, and administering the estate. Sections 1.3 and 1.4 set out the principal sources of law and the core technical vocabulary. Section 1.5 describes the solicitor's role across the three phases; section 1.6 explains the FLK2 assessment format; and section 1.7 tells you how to use this book to prepare.

2. The Three Phases of Practice

Although the FLK2 syllabus lists its topics under abstract headings — validity of wills, intestacy rules, grants of representation, administration, inheritance tax — in practice every Wills and Estates instruction falls into one of three distinct phases. Knowing which phase a scenario is in will help you identify, on the spot, which rules are likely to be in play.

1.2.1 Phase 1 — Planning the Will (lifetime)

During the client's lifetime the solicitor's role is to take instructions, advise on how the client wishes to pass on their estate, draft a valid will, arrange for its execution in accordance with section 9 of the Wills Act 1837, and store it safely. Planning work also includes advising on lifetime gifts with a view to mitigating inheritance tax (IHT), on structuring assets to take advantage of the nil rate band and the residence nil rate band, on lasting powers of attorney, and on the interaction between a will and other devices (life policies in trust, pension nominations, and jointly held property). The law that governs Phase 1 is concentrated in Chapters 2 and 3: the validity of the will itself, and the interpretation of the gifts made by it.

1.2.2 Phase 2 — Obtaining the Grant of Representation

Once the client has died, the next task is to obtain legal authority to deal with the estate. That authority comes in the form of a grant of representation issued by HM Courts and Tribunals Service (HMCTS) through the Probate Registry. If the deceased left a valid will the executors named in it apply for a grant of probate; if not, those entitled on intestacy apply for letters of administration; if there is a will but no proving executor, for letters of administration with the will annexed. Phase 2 also involves valuing the estate, completing an inheritance tax account (normally IHT400, or nothing at all if the estate is an excepted estate under the 2022 regulations), arranging the initial payment of any IHT due, and filing the application online via MyHMCTS. The law that governs Phase 2 is in Chapters 4, 5, 6, 7 and 9.

1.2.3 Phase 3 — Administering the Estate

Once the grant has issued the personal representatives (PRs) can collect in the assets, pay the debts and liabilities, pay any income tax and capital gains tax falling due during the administration, pay the legacies, and distribute the residue to the beneficiaries. PRs have statutory powers of sale, investment, appropriation and advancement, and they are subject to a statutory duty of care under the Trustee Act 2000. They must protect themselves against unknown creditors and missing beneficiaries — typically by advertising under section 27 of the Trustee Act 1925 — must identify and respond to any claim brought under the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975, and must produce estate accounts for the beneficiaries. The law that governs Phase 3 is in Chapters 8, 11 and 12.

Key point
SQE EXAM TIP. When you read an FLK2 scenario, the very first question to ask yourself is: which phase is this in? A question about whether a gift to the testator's witness is valid is a Phase 1 question (Chapter 2). A question about whether the executors need to advertise for creditors before distributing is a Phase 3 question (Chapter 8). Identifying the phase immediately narrows the rule-set you need to apply and prevents you from chasing irrelevant red herrings.
Section 1.2 Key Notes: ① Every instruction falls into one of three phases — planning, obtaining the grant, administering; ② Phase 1 (lifetime) — Chapters 2–3; ③ Phase 2 (the grant) — Chapters 4, 5, 6, 7, 9; ④ Phase 3 (administration) — Chapters 8, 11, 12; ⑤ identify the phase first to narrow the rule-set.

3. Sources of Law

The law of wills and estates is predominantly statutory. If you remember four statutes you will have 80% of the law: the Wills Act 1837 (validity and interpretation), the Administration of Estates Act 1925 (intestacy and PR powers), the Inheritance Tax Act 1984 (tax), and the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975 (family provision). The Trustee Act 1925, the Trustee Act 2000 and the Non-Contentious Probate Rules 1987 supply the remaining machinery.

1.3.1 Primary Legislation

The Wills Act 1837 is the foundation statute for the making, revocation and interpretation of wills. Section 7 fixes the minimum age to make a will at 18; section 9 sets out the four formal requirements for execution; section 15 causes a gift to an attesting witness or their spouse to fail; sections 18, 18A, 18B and 18C deal with the effect of marriage, divorce, civil partnership and the dissolution of a civil partnership on an existing will; section 20 governs revocation; section 21 deals with alterations; and section 33 substitutes a deceased beneficiary's issue for the beneficiary in certain family gifts. You will meet all of these in Chapters 2 and 3.

The Administration of Estates Act 1925 governs intestacy and the powers and duties of personal representatives. Section 33 imposes a statutory trust (with power to sell) on the personal representatives where a person dies wholly or partly intestate; section 34(3) and Part II of Schedule 1 set out the order for payment of debts in a solvent estate; section 35 enacts the rule in Locke King that a charged asset bears its own charge; section 41 is the PRs' power of appropriation; section 46 sets out the distribution on intestacy (as amended by the Inheritance and Trustees' Powers Act 2014); section 47 creates the statutory trusts for issue.

The Trustee Act 1925 supplies three further provisions that FLK2 tests routinely. Section 27 gives PRs and trustees protection against unknown creditors and beneficiaries by means of statutory advertisement; section 31 (maintenance) and section 32 (advancement), both as amended by the ITPA 2014, are the default statutory powers for minor and contingent beneficiaries, with section 32 now permitting advancement of up to the whole of a beneficiary's presumptive share; and section 61 gives the court a discretion to relieve PRs and trustees from personal liability where they have acted honestly and reasonably. The Trustee Act 2000 imposes the statutory duty of care in section 1 and Schedule 1, and confers a general power of investment (s.3) subject to standard investment criteria (s.4), a duty to obtain advice (s.5), a power to acquire land (s.8) and a power to delegate (s.11).

The Inheritance Tax Act 1984 is the code for inheritance tax. The headline rules are simple — death rate 40% (with a 36% charity rate where at least 10% of the net estate passes to charity), lifetime rate 20% on chargeable transfers into trust, nil rate band of £325,000 and residence nil rate band of £175,000. The detail — cumulation, taper, business and agricultural property relief, the gift with reservation of benefit rules and the seven- and fourteen-year rules — is the substance of Chapters 9 and 10.

The Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975 (I(PFD)A 1975) gives a defined class of family members and dependants a statutory right to apply to court for reasonable financial provision out of the estate within six months of the date of the grant. It is covered in Chapter 8. Finally, the Inheritance and Trustees' Powers Act 2014 (ITPA 2014) modernised the section 46 AEA 1925 intestacy distribution (abolishing the surviving spouse's statutory life interest) and modernised sections 31 and 32 of the Trustee Act 1925; all figures and distributions in this book already reflect the ITPA 2014 amendments.

Key point
REFORM. The Autumn Budget 2024 extended the freeze on the nil rate band (£325,000) and residence nil rate band (£175,000) to 5 April 2030. The Finance Act 2026 introduced, for deaths on or after 6 April 2026, a new combined allowance for Business Property Relief and Agricultural Property Relief: the first £2.5 million of qualifying property attracts 100% relief, with 50% relief on the excess (an effective 20% rate), and any unused allowance is transferable to a surviving spouse or civil partner. Separately, from 6 April 2027 most unused pension death benefits are to be brought within the IHT estate. The freeze and the BPR/APR allowance are in force; the pensions change is not yet in force but you should be aware it is coming.

1.3.2 Secondary Legislation and Rules of Court

The Non-Contentious Probate Rules 1987 (NCPR 1987), as amended, are the procedural code for probate applications. Rule 20 sets out the order of priority to apply for a grant where there is a will; rule 22 sets out the order of priority on intestacy; rule 27 governs renunciation; rule 44 governs caveats; and rule 46 governs citations. Contentious probate claims (including claims under the I(PFD)A 1975 and probate claims challenging validity) are governed by Part 57 of the Civil Procedure Rules. The Inheritance Tax (Delivery of Accounts) (Excepted Estates) Regulations 2004, as substantially amended from 1 January 2022, govern the current regime for excepted estates where no IHT account is required; the pre-2022 IHT205 form has been abolished.

1.3.3 Professional Conduct

The SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs 2019 is the foundation of Chapter 12. Paragraph 1.2 prohibits the abuse of position for personal benefit; paragraph 6.1 governs own-interest conflicts; paragraph 6.2 governs conflicts of interest between two clients; and paragraph 6.3 governs confidentiality. Alongside the Code, the Law Society Practice Note on making gifts of money or property to solicitors gives the significant value guidance that a solicitor must apply when a client wants to leave them a gift by will.

Principal Sources of Law in Wills and Estates
SourceWhat it governsKey provisions
Wills Act 1837Making, revocation and interpretation of wills (validity and interpretation).ss.7, 9, 15, 18, 18A, 18B, 18C, 20, 21, 33
Administration of Estates Act 1925Intestacy distribution and the powers and duties of PRs.ss.33, 34(3) & Sch.1 Pt II, 35, 41, 46, 47
Trustee Act 1925Protection of PRs/trustees; maintenance and advancement; court relief.ss.27, 31, 32, 61
Trustee Act 2000Statutory duty of care; investment; advice; acquiring land; delegation.ss.1 & Sch.1, 3, 4, 5, 8, 11
Inheritance Tax Act 1984Code for IHT on death and lifetime transfers.Death rate 40% (36% charity); lifetime 20%; NRB £325,000; RNRB £175,000
I(PFD)A 1975Family provision — reasonable financial provision out of the estate.Application within 6 months of the grant
ITPA 2014Modernised s.46 AEA intestacy and ss.31–32 Trustee Act 1925.Abolished spouse's statutory life interest; full advancement
NCPR 1987Procedural code for non-contentious probate applications.rr.20, 22, 27, 44, 46
CPR Part 57Contentious probate claims, including I(PFD)A 1975 claims.Civil Procedure Rules Part 57
SRA Code of Conduct 2019Professional conduct, including gifts to the solicitor.paras 1.2, 6.1, 6.2, 6.3
Section 1.3 Key Notes: ① The subject is predominantly statutory; ② the four principal statutes — WA 1837, AEA 1925, IHTA 1984, I(PFD)A 1975 — supply ~80% of the law; ③ the Trustee Acts 1925 and 2000 and NCPR 1987 supply the machinery; ④ contentious probate is governed by CPR Part 57; ⑤ professional conduct flows from the SRA Code 2019.

4. Key Terminology

The vocabulary of probate practice is largely Victorian and is not always intuitive. The following paragraphs introduce the core vocabulary you will need throughout this book. Do not try to memorise it all in one sitting — the meanings will become second nature as you work through the substantive chapters. Two umbrella terms, however, justify learning now: Personal Representative and Grant of Representation are used in every subsequent chapter.

Personal Representative (PR)The generic term for executors and administrators — the person or persons legally responsible for administering a deceased person's estate. An executor is appointed by the testator in a valid will; an administrator is appointed by the Probate Registry under letters of administration where there is no will or no executor able to act. The distinction matters for when authority vests (an executor's authority derives from the will and title vests at death; an administrator's authority derives from the grant alone), but most statutory provisions — in particular in the AEA 1925 and the Trustee Act 1925 — apply to PRs generally and make no distinction.
Grant of RepresentationThe umbrella term for the order of the Probate Registry that confers authority on the personal representatives to administer the estate. It comes in three forms: a grant of probate (executors, where there is a valid will); letters of administration with the will annexed (where there is a will but no proving executor); and letters of administration (on intestacy). Applications are submitted online via MyHMCTS and are supported by a statement of truth.

1.4.1 People in a Wills Matter

A testator (or, for a female client, sometimes testatrix) is a person who makes a will. A person dies testate if they leave a valid will and intestate if they do not. A beneficiary is a person entitled to take a benefit from the estate — either under the will (a legatee or devisee) or under the rules of intestacy. A beneficiary has no proprietary interest in any particular estate asset until it is assented or appropriated to them: before that their right is only a chose in action to have the estate properly administered (Commissioner of Stamp Duties v Livingston [1965] AC 694). Table 1.1 summarises the people you will meet in a Wills matter.

Table 1.1 — People in a Wills Matter
TermWho they areSource of authority
Testator / TestatrixA person who makes a will. Dies testate if the will is valid.Wills Act 1837 ss.7, 9
ExecutorPerson (up to four) appointed by the testator in the will to administer the estate.The will itself; title vests at death
AdministratorPerson appointed by the Probate Registry to administer an estate on intestacy or where there is no proving executor.The grant of letters of administration
Personal RepresentativeGeneric term for executors and administrators; the client of the solicitor in Phases 2 and 3.AEA 1925; Trustee Act 1925
BeneficiaryPerson entitled to take from the estate under the will or on intestacy.Will or s.46 AEA 1925
WitnessPerson who attests the execution of the will under s.9 WA 1837.Wills Act 1837 s.9; disqualified from benefit under s.15

1.4.2 The Estate and its Gifts

The estate is the aggregate of all property that the deceased was beneficially entitled to at the moment of death, less debts and funeral expenses. Gross estate is the value before deductions; net estate is after. For IHT purposes (Chapter 9) the estate immediately before death under section 5 IHTA 1984 is slightly wider than the estate that the PRs can actually deal with, because it includes items such as the deceased's severable beneficial interest in jointly-held property.

A gift made by a will may be a legacy (a gift of personal property), a devise (a gift of real property) or a bequest (either). Modern drafting tends to use gift or legacy for all of them, but the FLK2 examiners sometimes use the traditional terms. Legacies are further classified as specific, general, demonstrative, pecuniary or residuary — the residuary legatee takes what is left after every other legacy and every debt, tax and expense has been paid. The classification determines whether a gift fails by ademption, whether it bears its own inheritance tax, and in what order it abates if the estate is insolvent. Chapter 3 works through this classification in detail. Table 1.2 is a quick reference.

Table 1.2 — The Estate and its Gifts
TermMeaningWhere it matters
EstateAll property beneficially owned at death, less debts and funeral expenses.Chapters 4, 7, 9
Residue / Residuary estateWhat is left after debts, expenses, tax and all specific and pecuniary legacies have been paid.Chapters 3, 5, 8
Specific legacyGift of a particular identified asset (e.g. 'my gold ring'). Fails by ademption if the asset is no longer in the estate at death.Chapter 3
Pecuniary legacyGift of a fixed sum of money. Does not adeem; abates proportionately if the estate is insufficient.Chapters 3, 8
Residuary giftGift of what remains after all other gifts and liabilities. Bears the residual IHT burden by default.Chapters 3, 9
Probate valueOpen-market value at the date of death. Forms the base cost for CGT under s.62 TCGA 1992.Chapters 9, 11
AssentFormal act by which PRs vest a specific estate asset in the beneficiary entitled to it.s.36 AEA 1925; Chapter 8
AppropriationPower of PRs to transfer an estate asset to a beneficiary in or towards satisfaction of a pecuniary or general legacy.s.41 AEA 1925; Chapter 8

1.4.3 Life and Death of a Will

A will may be supplemented by a codicil — a formal document that amends an existing will. A codicil must itself comply with the section 9 Wills Act 1837 formalities and, when validly executed, republishes the will as at the date of the codicil for most purposes. A will may cease to have effect by revocation: expressly by a later will or codicil, impliedly by a later inconsistent will, by destruction with the intention to revoke (section 20 Wills Act 1837), or automatically by the testator's subsequent marriage or civil partnership (sections 18 and 18B). Two further events may cause a particular gift to fail without revoking the will as a whole: ademption, where a specific gift fails because the subject-matter no longer forms part of the estate at death (for example because it was sold or given away); and lapse, where a gift fails because the named beneficiary predeceases the testator. Lapse is disapplied by section 33 of the Wills Act 1837 where the gift is to the testator's issue and the deceased beneficiary leaves issue who survive the testator, in which case the deceased beneficiary's share passes per stirpes to their issue. All of this is developed in Chapter 3.

Section 1.4 Key Notes: ① PR = executor or administrator; ② Grant of representation comes in three forms (probate; letters with will annexed; letters of administration); ③ a beneficiary has only a chose in action until assent or appropriation (Commissioner of Stamp Duties v Livingston); ④ gifts are classified as specific, general, demonstrative, pecuniary or residuary; ⑤ a will may fail by revocation, and individual gifts by ademption or lapse (lapse saved for issue by s.33 WA 1837).

5. The Solicitor's Role Across the Three Phases

The way in which a solicitor adds value differs sharply between the three phases, and the FLK2 examiners test knowledge of the solicitor's role in each phase separately.

In Phase 1 (will-planning) the solicitor takes instructions face-to-face or by video. They must satisfy themselves that the client has testamentary capacity and is not acting under duress or undue influence; they must keep a careful attendance note; they must apply the Law Society's golden rule and take independent medical evidence whenever there is any doubt about the client's capacity (Kenward v Adams (1975); Key v Key [2010]). They must then draft a will that accurately reflects the client's wishes, advise on IHT planning, and arrange for proper execution under section 9 of the Wills Act 1837. If the client wants to leave a gift to the solicitor personally, or to the solicitor's family or firm, the solicitor must apply the conflict rules in Chapter 12 before going any further.

In Phase 2 (applying for the grant) the solicitor is normally acting for the PRs, not the beneficiaries. Their client is therefore the person entitled to apply: executors under NCPR rule 20 if there is a will, or those entitled on intestacy under NCPR rule 22 if there is not. The solicitor collects information about the assets and liabilities of the estate, values them at the date of death, completes and files IHT400 (or establishes that the estate is an excepted estate so that no IHT return is required), arranges for the initial payment of any IHT due, and submits the application for the grant via MyHMCTS supported by a statement of truth.

In Phase 3 (administration) the solicitor normally continues to act for the PRs. They advise on the collection of the assets, the payment of debts in the statutory order, the handling of specific and pecuniary legacies, the tax position during the administration period, the form and content of the estate accounts, the transfer of the residuary estate to the residuary beneficiaries, and the PRs' personal protection under section 27 of the Trustee Act 1925. If a claim is brought under the I(PFD)A 1975 the solicitor advises on whether to contest it or settle it. At the end of the administration the solicitor delivers the estate accounts and, where assets remain on a continuing trust, transitions from acting for the PRs to acting for the trustees.

Key point
SQE EXAM TIP. The solicitor's client is the PRs, not the beneficiaries. This is the single most common conflict trap in FLK2 scenario questions: a beneficiary asks the solicitor for information, or to make an early distribution, or to favour one interest over another. The solicitor owes their duties to the PRs, who in turn owe their fiduciary duties equally to all beneficiaries. When the question asks what the solicitor should do, always ask yourself first: who is the client?
Section 1.5 Key Notes: ① Phase 1 — capacity, golden rule (Kenward v Adams; Key v Key), drafting, IHT advice, s.9 execution, conflict check if a gift is made to the solicitor; ② Phase 2 — value the estate, IHT400 or excepted estate, apply for the grant via MyHMCTS (NCPR rr.20/22); ③ Phase 3 — collect, pay debts in statutory order, legacies, tax, s.27 protection, estate accounts, I(PFD)A 1975 claims; ④ the solicitor's client is the PRs, not the beneficiaries.

6. The SQE1 FLK2 Assessment

SQE1 is composed of two multiple-choice assessments: FLK1 (Functioning Legal Knowledge 1) and FLK2 (Functioning Legal Knowledge 2). Each assessment contains 180 single best answer questions presented in two sittings of 90 questions, each sitting lasting 2 hours 33 minutes (five hours and six minutes of assessment time in total). The FLK2 assessment covers Property Law and Practice, Wills and the Administration of Estates, Solicitors' Accounts, Land Law, Trusts, and Criminal Liability and Criminal Law and Practice.

Of the 180 questions in FLK2, between roughly 18 and 24 are expected to fall within the Wills and Estates syllabus on any given sitting. Of those, the SRA specification indicates that approximately one-third will relate to inheritance tax (Chapters 9 and 10 of this book), so the largest single investment of your revision time should be in those two chapters. The remaining questions are distributed across validity and execution (Chapter 2), interpretation and failure of gifts (Chapter 3), personal representatives (Chapter 4), intestacy (Chapters 5 and 6), grants and administration (Chapters 7 and 8), and conduct (Chapter 12).

1.6.1 The Single Best Answer Format

Every question presents a factual scenario (usually three to ten lines of text), sometimes followed by additional documents such as a clause extracted from a will, a letter, or an IHT figure, and then asks 'Which ONE of the following…'. Five options, A to E, follow. Exactly one of the five is the single best answer. The others may be wrong because they apply the wrong rule, misstate the rule, misapply the rule to the facts, describe a permissible course of action that is not the best one in the circumstances, or simply invent a legal proposition.

There are no negative marks. You should answer every question. If you are uncertain between two options, pick one — leaving the question blank is worse than a 50% chance of picking the right answer. If you are truly stuck, move on and flag the question; you can return to it at the end of the paper.

The five options are never obviously silly. The wrong answers are designed to reward careful reading: a common trap is an option that states a correct proposition of law that, on the facts given, simply does not apply. Another is an option that applies the right rule but misstates it by one word — for example 'within six months of the death' when the statutory time limit is six months from the grant of representation, not from the death. Read the stem carefully and read every word of every option. 'On the facts given' is the relevant phrase, not 'in principle' or 'in most cases'.

1.6.2 What FLK2 Examiners Test in Wills

Five recurring question types appear in the Wills section of FLK2. First, validity questions: does the document count as a valid will, given the facts about its execution, the testator's capacity, or subsequent events such as marriage, divorce, destruction or alteration? These test Chapter 2. Second, gift-failure questions: does a particular gift in the will take effect, or does it fail by lapse, ademption, disclaimer, the witness-beneficiary rule, or the effect of divorce? Does section 33 Wills Act 1837 save the gift for the beneficiary's issue? These test Chapter 3. Third, distribution-on-intestacy questions: who takes the estate under section 46 AEA 1925, applying the £322,000 statutory legacy, the 28-day survivorship requirement, and the statutory trusts? These test Chapter 5.

Fourth, grant and administration questions: who can apply for the grant, what kind of grant is needed, and what powers and duties does a PR have — particularly in relation to the protection of PRs against unknown claims, and the scope of a claim under the I(PFD)A 1975? These test Chapters 4, 7 and 8. Fifth, IHT calculation questions: apply the nil rate band, the residence nil rate band, the taper relief on failed potentially exempt transfers, the charity rate, business and agricultural property relief (taking into account the £2.5 million combined allowance from 6 April 2026), and the burden and incidence rules, on the facts of a worked scenario. These test Chapters 9 and 10 and are the single largest block of Wills questions.

Section 1.6 Key Notes: ① SQE1 = FLK1 + FLK2, each 180 SBAQs; ② FLK2 covers six subjects including Wills and Estates; ③ roughly 18–24 Wills questions per sitting, ~one-third on IHT; ④ five options A–E, one best answer, no negative marking; ⑤ read every word — watch for the 'six months from the grant, not the death' trap; ⑥ five recurring question types: validity, gift-failure, intestacy, grant/administration, IHT calculation.

7. How to Use This Book

Each of Chapters 2 to 12 is structured in the same way. An SQE Assessment Advice box at the start identifies what the FLK2 examiners are most likely to test on the topic. A short Introduction section previews the chapter and anchors it in the three-phase framework from 1.2. Numbered substantive sections then set out the law, with full statutory references and case citations. Every important rule is followed by a worked example that applies the rule to a concrete set of facts. Inline callout boxes — KEY TERM, SQE EXAM TIP, EXAMPLE, WARNING and (where applicable) FUTURE REFORM — draw attention to points that students most often get wrong.

At the end of each chapter you will find a Key Notes table summarising the main rules, concepts and authorities for final-stage revision, a Revision Notes section with five broad Q&A prompts, and five SQE1-style single best answer practice questions with a full answer key explaining why each option is right or wrong. Several of the practice questions are adapted from the SRA's own published sample papers.

Key point
The most efficient study pattern: read the chapter once for comprehension; work the MCQs under timed conditions and mark them against the answer key; return to any section where you got an MCQ wrong and re-read the relevant callout boxes; and use the Key Notes table for spaced revision. Do not read the book cover to cover without doing the MCQs — the single best answer format is a skill in itself, and it is the skill that will be tested on exam day.
Key point
REFORM — recent and forthcoming IHT changes. First, from 6 April 2026 (now in force under the Finance Act 2026), Business Property Relief and Agricultural Property Relief give 100% relief on the first £2.5 million of combined qualifying value per individual, with only 50% relief on the excess; any unused allowance is transferable to a surviving spouse or civil partner, and AIM-listed (unlisted) shares attract only 50% BPR. Second, from 6 April 2027, most unused pension death benefits will be brought within the deceased's estate for IHT purposes. Both changes are discussed in Chapter 9. For any FLK2 sitting on or after April 2026 you must apply the new BPR/APR allowance; the pensions change is not yet in force and is flagged for awareness only.
Section 1.7 Key Notes: ① Chapters 2–12 share a fixed structure (Assessment Advice → Introduction → numbered sections with worked examples → Key Notes → Revision Notes → five MCQs); ② callout boxes flag the common traps; ③ best study pattern: read, work MCQs under timed conditions, revisit weak sections, revise the Key Notes table; ④ be aware of the 6 April 2026 BPR/APR £2.5m allowance and the 6 April 2027 pensions reform.

8. Key Notes (Chapter Summary)

The following summary table consolidates the main rules, concepts and authorities examined in this chapter. Treat it as a revision checklist — you should be able to explain each row from memory.

Chapter 1 — Key Notes Summary
Key ItemConceptCases / References
Three phases of practiceEvery Wills and Estates instruction falls into one of three phases: planning the will in the client's lifetime; obtaining the grant of representation after death; and administering the estate. Identify the phase before applying the rules.Chapters 2–12
Testate v intestateA person dies testate if they leave a valid will that disposes of their estate; otherwise intestate (in whole or in part). The distribution rules differ sharply.Wills Act 1837; s.46 AEA 1925
Executor v administratorExecutors are appointed in the will and derive authority from it; administrators are appointed by the Probate Registry and derive authority from the grant. Both are called Personal Representatives (PRs).NCPR rr.20, 22
Grant of representationProbate Registry document that confers authority on the PRs. Probate (will + executor); letters of administration with will annexed (will but no executor); letters of administration (intestacy).NCPR 1987; MyHMCTS
Principal statutesWills Act 1837 (validity and interpretation); Administration of Estates Act 1925 (intestacy and PR powers); Inheritance Tax Act 1984 (tax); Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975 (family provision).WA 1837; AEA 1925; IHTA 1984; I(PFD)A 1975
ITPA 2014Modernised the intestacy distribution in s.46 AEA 1925 (abolishing the surviving spouse's statutory life interest) and sections 31 and 32 Trustee Act 1925 (full income and full advancement).ITPA 2014
IHT headline figures (2025/26)NRB £325,000; RNRB £175,000; death rate 40% (36% charity rate where at least 10% of net estate passes to charity); lifetime chargeable rate 20%. Both bands frozen to 5 April 2030.IHTA 1984 ss.7, 8D; Autumn Budget 2024
ReformsFrom 6 April 2026 (in force): combined £2.5m allowance for 100% BPR/APR, 50% relief on the excess, allowance transferable between spouses; AIM/unlisted shares to 50% BPR. From 6 April 2027: most unused pension death benefits to be brought into the IHT estate (announced, not yet in force).Finance Act 2026; Chapter 9
FLK2 assessment format180 single best answer questions across six FLK2 subjects; five options A–E; one correct answer; no negative marking. Approximately 18–24 Wills questions per sitting, with IHT the largest single block.SRA FLK2 specification
SRA Code of Conduct 2019Framework for professional conduct in estate administration. Paragraphs 1.2, 6.1, 6.2 and 6.3 are the key paragraphs where a gift is made to the solicitor personally.SRA Code 2019; Chapter 12

9. Revision Notes

Work through each of the following focused revision prompts. Attempt to answer from memory first — the note underneath gives the model answer and explains why the point matters for the SQE1 FLK2.

Key point
Q1. Identify the three practical phases of a solicitor's work in Wills and Estates, explain what the solicitor does in each phase, and indicate where in this book the principal rules governing each phase are set out.
Note. Phase 1 is planning: during the client's lifetime the solicitor takes instructions, assesses the client's testamentary capacity (applying the Banks v Goodfellow test and the golden rule), advises on the distribution of the estate and on IHT planning, drafts the will, and arranges execution in accordance with s.9 Wills Act 1837. The governing law is in Chapters 2 and 3. Phase 2 is obtaining the grant: after death, the solicitor (acting for the PRs) values the estate, completes the IHT return (IHT400 or an excepted-estate statement), arranges the initial IHT payment, and applies for the grant of representation via MyHMCTS. The governing law is in Chapters 4, 5, 6, 7 and 9. Phase 3 is administration: collecting in the assets, paying the debts and tax, satisfying the legacies, distributing the residue, protecting the PRs against unknown claims (notably s.27 TA 1925 advertisement), and producing the estate accounts. The governing law is in Chapters 8, 11 and 12.
Key point
Q2. Distinguish between an executor, an administrator and a personal representative, and explain from where each derives their authority to deal with the estate and whether they can act before the grant issues.
Note. An executor is a person appointed in the will. Their authority derives from the will itself: the executor's title vests at the moment of death, and they can take steps in the administration (for example arranging the funeral, paying urgent debts, or commencing proceedings to preserve the estate) before the grant of probate is issued — although in practice they will need the grant to prove title to third parties. An administrator is appointed by the Probate Registry under letters of administration (with or without a will annexed). Their authority derives solely from the grant and they have no power to act at all before the grant issues (Ingall v Moran [1944] KB 160). Both executors and administrators are referred to generically as personal representatives (PRs), and most statutory provisions — in particular in the AEA 1925 and the Trustee Act 1925 — apply to PRs without distinction.
Key point
Q3. List the four principal statutes that underpin the law of wills and administration of estates and indicate, for each, the main areas it regulates.
Note. The Wills Act 1837 governs the making of wills: who can make one (s.7), the formal requirements for valid execution (s.9), the effect of a gift to an attesting witness (s.15), revocation (s.20), alterations (s.21), the effect of marriage and divorce on a will (ss.18, 18A, 18B, 18C), and the substitution of a deceased beneficiary's issue (s.33). The Administration of Estates Act 1925 governs the distribution of the estate on intestacy (s.46), the creation of the statutory trusts for issue (s.47), the order of payment of debts (s.34(3) and Sch.1 Pt II), and the powers of personal representatives (including appropriation under s.41 and assent under s.36). The Inheritance Tax Act 1984 codifies inheritance tax on lifetime transfers and transfers on death, including the nil rate band, the residence nil rate band, reliefs and exemptions. The Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975 gives a defined class of family members and dependants a right to apply for reasonable financial provision out of the estate, within six months of the date of the grant.
Key point
Q4. Explain, for an SQE1 candidate, the single best answer format and give three practical strategies for approaching a Wills question on exam day.
Note. Every FLK2 question presents a factual scenario followed by five options, A–E, and asks which one is the single best answer. Only one option is correct; the others are distractors that may state the wrong rule, apply the right rule incorrectly, or state a rule that does not apply on the facts given. There is no negative marking. Three practical strategies: first, identify the phase of the scenario (is it about making the will, obtaining the grant, or administering the estate?) — this narrows the rule-set. Second, read every word of every option — the wrong answers are often distinguishable from the right one only by one or two words (for example the statutory legacy figure, or whether a time limit runs from death or from the grant). Third, never leave a question blank: eliminate the obviously wrong options, pick the best remaining, flag the question, and return to it at the end.
Key point
Q5. Name two reforms to the IHT regime that affect estates where death occurs on or after 6 April 2026, and one further reform expected to take effect on 6 April 2027, and explain briefly what each reform does.
Note. First, the freeze on the IHT nil rate band (£325,000) and residence nil rate band (£175,000) has been extended (Autumn Budget 2024) to 5 April 2030 — so there is no inflation-linked uplift through to that date and more estates will become liable to IHT as asset values rise. Second, from 6 April 2026 Business Property Relief and Agricultural Property Relief give 100% relief on the first £2.5 million of combined qualifying value per individual (with the unused allowance transferable to a surviving spouse or civil partner); value above the allowance attracts only 50% relief. AIM-listed (unlisted) shares no longer attract 100% BPR and are reduced to 50% BPR. These changes are in force under the Finance Act 2026. Third, from 6 April 2027 most unused pension death benefits are expected to be brought within the deceased's estate for IHT purposes (announced but not yet in force as of the date of this book).

10. MCQ Practice — Five SQE-Style Questions

Test your understanding with the following SQE1-style single best answer questions. Each question has five options, and only one is correct. Attempt each question closed-book, write down your answer, then turn to the answer key. The answer key explains why each option is correct or incorrect — read every explanation in full.

Question 1
A client attends a solicitor and, during their first appointment, says: 'I want to know what happens to my things after I die — please explain what "probate" actually is.' The solicitor is preparing to give a short general explanation before taking detailed instructions. Which ONE of the following statements BEST describes the role of a grant of representation in the administration of an estate in England and Wales?

A. A grant of representation is the document that creates the personal representatives' authority to administer the estate in every case, and no person has any power to take steps in the administration before the grant is issued.

B. A grant of representation is the order of HM Courts and Tribunals Service that confers authority on the personal representatives to administer the estate; executors derive their authority from the will itself and may take limited steps before the grant issues, whereas administrators derive their authority solely from the grant.

C. A grant of representation is the formal document by which the Probate Registry transfers title to each estate asset into the name of the residuary beneficiary.

D. A grant of representation is required in every estate before any bank, building society or other institution may release any funds in the deceased's name, regardless of the size of the estate.

E. A grant of representation is the document by which the beneficiaries of the estate acquire their beneficial interests in the specific assets of the estate; until the grant issues, the beneficiaries have no interest at all.

Answer & explanation
Answer: B.
B is correct — a grant of representation is the order of HMCTS (through the Probate Registry) conferring authority on the PRs to administer the estate. Executors derive their authority from the will and their title vests on death; they can therefore take limited steps before the grant issues (for example arranging the funeral, paying urgent debts, commencing preservation proceedings) — although the grant is needed to prove title to banks and the Land Registry. Administrators derive their authority solely from the grant and have no power to act before it issues (Ingall v Moran [1944] KB 160).
A is incorrect — it wrongly states that nobody can act before the grant: that is true for administrators only, not executors.
C is incorrect — it confuses the grant with an assent, which is the document that actually transfers title to a specific asset.
D is incorrect — very small estates do not need a grant at all (e.g. under the Administration of Estates (Small Payments) Act 1965).
E is incorrect — a beneficiary does not acquire a beneficial interest in any specific asset on the grant; until assent or appropriation a beneficiary has only a chose in action to have the estate properly administered (Commissioner of Stamp Duties v Livingston [1965] AC 694), and that right does not depend on the grant. (See Sections 1.2 and 1.4.)
Question 2
A solicitor is instructed by the children of a man who died last week. The solicitor is explaining the sequence of steps that will have to be taken before the residuary estate can be distributed. She refers to 'the three phases of Wills and Estates practice'. Which ONE of the following statements BEST describes what is done in each phase?

A. Phase 1 is the collection of the estate's assets; Phase 2 is the payment of the debts and the inheritance tax; Phase 3 is the distribution of the residue to the beneficiaries.

B. Phase 1 is obtaining the grant of probate; Phase 2 is collecting the assets and paying the debts; Phase 3 is distributing the estate.

C. Phase 1 is taking instructions and drafting the will during the client's lifetime; Phase 2 is obtaining the grant of representation after death; Phase 3 is administering the estate (collecting assets, paying debts and tax, and distributing).

D. Phase 1 is the client's lifetime tax planning; Phase 2 is the valuation of the estate for IHT purposes; Phase 3 is the filing of the IHT account.

E. Phase 1 is the making of the will; Phase 2 is the administration of the estate; Phase 3 is the creation of any continuing trusts for minor beneficiaries.

Answer & explanation
Answer: C.
C is correct and accurately summarises the three practical phases that are used as the organising framework of this book: Phase 1 (lifetime planning and will drafting — Chapters 2 and 3); Phase 2 (obtaining the grant of representation — Chapters 4, 5, 6, 7 and 9); Phase 3 (administering the estate — Chapters 8, 11 and 12).
A is incorrect — it mis-describes the phases or compresses them incorrectly (its 'Phase 1' to 'Phase 3' are all sub-tasks of administration, i.e. Phase 3).
B is incorrect — likewise mis-describes the phases, omitting lifetime planning altogether.
D is incorrect — it confuses the phases with specific IHT tasks that are actually a sub-part of Phase 2.
E is incorrect — it conflates administration with the creation of continuing trusts; the creation of a continuing trust is a consequence of the will, not itself a phase of practice. (See Section 1.2.)
Question 3
A woman makes a valid will. She then marries. A week later she is killed in an accident. Her children ask the solicitor who drafted the will whether the will is still effective. The solicitor correctly tells them that the marriage revoked the will. The children want to know WHICH statute provides for this rule. Which ONE of the following is CORRECT?

A. The rule that a later marriage revokes an earlier will is set out in section 18 of the Wills Act 1837.

B. The rule that a later marriage revokes an earlier will is set out in section 46 of the Administration of Estates Act 1925.

C. The rule that a later marriage revokes an earlier will is set out in the Inheritance Tax Act 1984.

D. The rule that a later marriage revokes an earlier will is set out in section 27 of the Trustee Act 1925.

E. The rule that a later marriage revokes an earlier will is set out in the Non-Contentious Probate Rules 1987.

Answer & explanation
Answer: A.
A is correct — the rule that a later marriage (or civil partnership, under the parallel provision in s.18B) automatically revokes an earlier will is set out in section 18 of the Wills Act 1837.
B is incorrect — s.46 AEA 1925 refers to the intestacy distribution, not revocation.
C is incorrect — the IHTA 1984 is a tax statute and has nothing to do with revocation.
D is incorrect — s.27 Trustee Act 1925 concerns statutory advertisement for creditors and beneficiaries, not revocation.
E is incorrect — the NCPR 1987 are the procedural code governing applications to the Probate Registry, not the substantive revocation rule. (See Sections 1.3.1 and 1.4.3.)
Question 4
A trainee solicitor is reviewing an FLK2 past paper. One question concerns a man who died leaving a will under which his estate passes to his cohabiting partner. The partner wants to know whether she can make a claim for reasonable financial provision out of the estate. The trainee is unsure which statute governs the answer. Which ONE of the following is the governing statute?

A. The Wills Act 1837.

B. The Administration of Estates Act 1925.

C. The Inheritance Tax Act 1984.

D. The Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975.

E. The Trustee Act 2000.

Answer & explanation
Answer: D.
D is correct — the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975 is the statute that gives a defined class of applicants — including a cohabitant of two or more years (s.1(1)(ba)) — a statutory right to apply for reasonable financial provision out of the estate within six months of the grant of representation.
A is incorrect — the Wills Act 1837 is the statute of validity and interpretation, not family provision.
B is incorrect — the AEA 1925 is the distribution and PR-powers statute, not a family provision statute.
C is incorrect — the IHTA 1984 is the tax code.
E is incorrect — the Trustee Act 2000 governs the duty of care and investment powers of trustees and PRs. (See Sections 1.3.1 and 1.6.2.)
Question 5
A newly qualified solicitor is instructed by the executors of a small, non-taxable estate. The executors ask her when she expects to be in a position to distribute the residue to the residuary beneficiaries. She explains that the administration will proceed in the usual three phases. Which ONE of the following statements CORRECTLY identifies the solicitor's client in Phase 3 of the administration?

A. The solicitor's client in Phase 3 is the residuary beneficiaries of the estate.

B. The solicitor's client in Phase 3 is the personal representatives; the beneficiaries are not the clients.

C. The solicitor's client in Phase 3 is whoever has the largest financial interest in the estate, whether that is a PR or a beneficiary.

D. The solicitor's client in Phase 3 is the Probate Registry, because the solicitor is accountable to the Registry for the administration of the grant.

E. The solicitor's client in Phase 3 is the deceased, because the duty of confidentiality to a deceased client continues after death and must be exercised through the solicitor rather than through the PRs.

Answer & explanation
Answer: B.
B is correct — the solicitor's client in the administration of an estate is the personal representatives. The beneficiaries are interested in the outcome of the administration, but they are not the client; the solicitor's professional duties are owed to the PRs. This is the single most common conflict trap in FLK2 scenario questions.
A is incorrect for that reason — the beneficiaries are not the client.
C is incorrect — it invents a 'largest financial interest' test that does not exist.
D is incorrect — the solicitor is not accountable to the Probate Registry for the administration.
E is incorrect — it mis-states the duty of confidentiality to a deceased client (see Chapter 12) as if it made the deceased the client; it does not. The duty of confidentiality survives death but is owed on behalf of the deceased, not to the deceased as a living client. (See Section 1.5.)
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